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16799: Coates: Re: 16798: Kathleen: Cap Haitien (fwd)




From: Carrol Coates <ccoates@binghamton.edu>


My sense would be merely the matter of historical evolution of French
orthography:  in the 17th cent. and before, "francois" was the spelling for
what is now "francais"--and the pronunciation was the same by the late 17th
cent. and later.  By the late 18th, people may have variously used either
spelling.


Carrol F. Coates
Binghamton University--SUNY
e:  ccoates@binghamton.edu
tel:  (607) 777-4632